Answers below 

DEATH

DTH 1.  What does Genesis 35:18 mean where it speaks of Rachel’s soul departing?

Genesis 35:18 - “And it came to pass, as her soul was in departing, (for she died) that she called his name Benoni: but his father called him Benjamin.”  

Since it is not possible for souls to exist outside of bodies, how do we explain this apparent contradiction? The word “soul” is translated from the Hebrew word “nephesh” which has been translated 118 times in the Old Testament as “life”. The same word is used in Genesis 1:30 in reference to animals. It is never used in one single instance to denote an immortal or undying part of man.

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DTH 2. What does 2 Samuel 13:39 mean when it says, “the soul of king David longed to go forth unto Absalom.”?

2 Samuel 13:39 - “And the soul of king David longed to go forth unto Absalom: for he was comforted concerning Amnon, seeing he was dead.”

The sharp, piercing feelings of David’s grief having been softened by time, his thoughts turned from the dead to the living son, self-banished through fear of the just punishment of his crime. There is nothing in this verse to imply that the incestuous, drunken Amnon was at death immediately transported to the abodes of bliss, there to be purified and prepared for the companionship of sinless angels.

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DTH 3. In 1 Samuel 28:14 did the witch of Endor call up the spirit of the dead prophet Samuel?

1 Samuel 28:14 - “And he said unto her, What form is he of? And she said, An old man cometh up; and he is covered with a mantle. And Saul perceived that it was Samuel, and he stooped with his face to the ground, and bowed himself.”

This spiritual séance has been cited as evidence for life after death. But here are points to the contrary: 1. Wizards had been sentenced to death or banned from the land (1 Samuel 28:3; Leviticus 20:27). 2. God had departed from Saul and would not communicate with him (1 Samuel 28:15). 3. Samuel was supposedly “brought up”. Other expressions used in this passage include: “ascending out of the earth,” “cometh up,” and “bring … up” (verses 13-15). Is this where the righteous dead are ― down in the earth? Not according to those who believe in the immortal soul. 4. Samuel is described as an old man covered with a mantle. Is this the way immortal souls appear? And where did the soul get the body” They’re supposed to be disembodied. Was there a resurrection? Did God obey the beck and call of the witch and raise up Samuel? If not, can Satan raise the dead? 5. The apparition of Samuel told Soul “… tomorrow shalt thou and thy sons be with me….” (1 Samuel 28:19). Saul committed suicide on the battlefield the next day. Where did Samuel dwell, if the wicked Saul was to go to the same place? 6. The Bible never says that Saul saw Samuel. He received his information secondhand from the witch, and only concluded it was Samuel from her description. The truth is that the devil deceived the dissolute old woman, and she deceived Saul. It was nothing more than a devil-generated séance. 7. The enormity of Saul’s sin is revealed in these words: “So Saul died for his transgression … and also for asking counsel of one that had a familiar spirit, to enquire of it; And enquired not of the LORD: therefore he slew him …” (1 Chronicles 10:13, 14)

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DTH 4. What is the meaning of 1 Kings 17:21, 22 where Elijah prayed for a child?

1 Kings 17:21, 22 - “And he stretched himself upon the child three times, and cried unto the LORD, and said, O LORD my God, I pray thee, let this child’s soul come into him again. And the LORD heard the voice of Elijah; and the soul of the child came into him again, and he revived.”

Since it is not possible for souls to exist outside of bodies, how do we explain this apparent contradiction? The word “soul” is translated from the Hebrew word “nephesh” which has been translated 118 times in the Old Testament as “life”. The same word is used in Genesis 1:30 in reference to animals. It is never used in one single instance to denote an immortal or undying part of man. Every conflict is harmonized if the more proper word “life” is used in reference to the child, instead of “soul”. His life slipped away, or left the body. Then the life returned to the boy when the prophet prayed. Don’t overlook the fact that the lifeless body was called “him” as well as the restored boy. This proves that the “person” did not depart to be with the Lord. The whole person was represented by the body, whether dead or alive.

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DTH 5. What does Job 14:21, 22 mean where it says, “his soul within him shall mourn.”?

Job 14:21, 22 - “His sons come to honor, and he knoweth it not; and they are brought low, but he perceiveth it not of them. But his flesh upon him shall have pain, and his soul within him shall mourn.”

Verse 22 appears to be saying that a dead man’s fleshly body can continue to give him pain and that his soul can be grieved. Although it is obvious to all that the bodily sensations cease at death, a closer look at these poetic words reveal their true meaning. It must be remembered that in Hebrew poetry, intelligence, personality and feelings are often ascribed to objects or concepts that do not normally have these attributes (Judges 9:8-15). Job is actually describing, in a very graphic way, the ravages that take place at death. As a body decays, its horrible state of decomposition contorts all the physical features into the expression of grimacing pain. In verse 12, the state of man in death is fully clarified: “So man lieth down, and riseth not: till the heavens be no more, they shall not awake, nor be raised out of their sleep.” Thus Moses, the writer of Job, agrees perfectly with the words of Christ, who later described death as an unconscious sleep (John 11:11).

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DTH 6.  What does Job 34:14, 15 mean when it speaks of his spirit and his breath?

 Job 34:14, 15 - “If he set his heart upon man, if he gather unto himself his spirit and his breath; All flesh shall perish together, and man shall turn again unto dust.”

  This text points back to Creation, when God “breathed into his (man’s) nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul” (Genesis 2:7). In many other texts of Scripture, the breath which entered man’s nostrils is identified as the “spirit”. In Job 27:3 we read, “All the while my breath is in me, and the spirit of God is in my nostrils”. Genesis, of course, describes breath going into the nostrils at the time of creation, not the spirit; but the Hebrew parallelism of Job 27:3 repeats the same thought in a secondary phrase, calling the breath in the nostrils the “spirit of God in my nostrils”.

  The Psalmist, on the other hand, describes the same process in these words: “Thou sendest forth thy spirit, they are created”. “Thou takest away their breath, they die, and return to their dust” (Psalm 104:30, 29). These texts show how the words “breath” and “spirit” are used interchangeably in the Bible. Sometimes it says that God created by putting His breath into the body, but again it will say He created by putting the spirit into the body. Incidentally, death is described not only as “breath” returning to God (Psalm 104:29), but also as the “spirit” returning to God (Ecclesiastes 12:7).

  Our text in Job 34:14, 15 now begins to come into focus, as it describes the process by which man dies and “shall turn again unto dust”. In this case, since the reference is not to an individual dying, but rather to the death of “all flesh”, the Psalmist employs a parallel use of both words, “breath” and “spirit”, to describe the removal of the life principle.

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DTH 7.  What does Matthew 10 28 mean where it says, “but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell”.  

Matthew 10:28 - “And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.”

 Jesus clearly teaches in this text that the soul is not naturally immortal. It can and will be destroyed in hell. But what does He mean about killing the body, but not the soul? Is it possible for the soul to exist apart from the body? Some say it is, but the Bible indicates otherwise.

  The Greek word “psuche” has been translated “soul” in this text, but in 40 other texts it has been translated “life”. For example, Jesus said, “Whosoever will lose his life (psuche) for my sake shall find it” (Matthew 16:25).

  But what of Matthew 10:28? Put in the word “life” instead of “soul” and the text makes perfect sense in its consistency with the rest of the Bible. The contrast is between one who can take the physical life and Him who can take away eternal life. Proof lies in the words of Jesus: “And I say unto you my friends, Be not afraid of them that kill the body, and after that have no more that they can do. But I will forewarn you whom ye shall fear: Fear him, which after he hath killed hath power to cast into hell” (Luke 12:4, 5).

  In other words, the word “soul” here means not only life, but eternal life. Notice that Luke says everything just like Matthew except that he does not say “kills the soul.” Instead he says “cast into hell.” They mean the same thing. Men can only kill the body and take away the physical life. God will cast into hell (the lake of fire) and take away eternal life. Not only will their bodies be destroyed in that fire, but their lives will be ended for all eternity.

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DTH 8.  What does Matthew 16:28 mean when it says some shall not taste of death?

Matthew 16:28 - “Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here which shall not taste of death till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.”

  This verse can be understood only in the light of what immediately followed―the transfiguration. The very next verse describes that experience and how God spoke out of the cloud saying, “This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased” (Matthew 17:5).

  How did the appearance of Moses and Elijah relate to the coming of Jesus? And how can we know that Christ’s words in Matthew 16:28 were referring to that event? The answer is in 2 Peter 1:16-18: “For we have not followed cunningly devised fables, when we made known unto you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. And this voice which came from heaven we heard, when we were with him in the holy mount.” (emphasis added)

  Please take note that this transfiguration experience, recorded by Peter, is described as the “coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Why? Because Moses and Elijah appeared with Him on the mount. One of them (Elijah) was translated without seeing death, and the other (Moses) experienced a special resurrection. Thus they represent all who will be saved at the second coming of Christ. Moses symbolized the saints who will be raised to eternal life at that time, and Elijah represented those who will be alive at the second coming and translated without seeing death.

  Moses’ resurrection is described in Jude 9, where Michael the archangel (another name title of Jesus) is pictured as contending with Satan over the body of Moses. Some have questioned if this experience really establishes the resurrection of Moses. But why else would the angel of the resurrection be by the graveside disputing over a body?  Please note 1 Thessalonians 4:16, where the “voice of the archangel” will open the graves of the dead. Clearly the archangel was by Moses’ grave for only one purpose―to raise him to life, despite Satan’s efforts to prevent it.

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DTH 9.  What does Matthew 22:31, 32 mean when Jesus said “God is not the God of the dead, but of the living”?

Matthew 22:31, 32 - “… have ye not read that … I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.”

  It is often overlooked that Jesus was talking about the resurrection when He spoke these words. He did not mean that Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob were alive then, but they would be alive in the resurrection because He was the God who could give life to the dead.

  Here’s the full text which clarifies the matter: “But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living” (verses 31, 32).

  The topic under discussion was the resurrection, not the state of the dead. He alluded to those patriarchs only in their relation to the resurrection―an assurance that they would have a part in it. Romans 4:17 makes it clear that God “quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.” Don’t miss the point that, concerning the raising of the dead, God speaks of their resurrected life as though it were already accomplished.

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DTH 10.  What is the meaning of Luke 9:60 when Jesus said, “Let the dead bury their dead:”?

Luke 9:60 - “Jesus said unto him, Let the dead bury their dead: but go thou and preach the kingdom of God”.

  This verse reveals one man’s response to Christ’s call of discipleship. From the context of this passage, it seems quite apparent that the man’s father was not yet dead. If the father had been dead, the son would have had no opportunity to accompany Christ and the disciples. In that hot country, with no embalming, bodies had to be buried immediately. The man was asking to postpone following the Lord until his father had passed away and been buried.

  Christ’s answer exposed the procrastinator, (someone who delays things or puts thing off till the future). It indicated the high priority of obedience. Nothing must stand in the way of instant response to the call of Jesus. The Bible speaks of a certain sinner being “dead while she liveth” (1 Timothy 5:6).

  In Luke 9:60, Jesus was rebuking the man with these words: “Let the (spiritually) dead bury their (physically) dead: but go thou and preach the kingdom of God.” In other words, make your decision while the call is strong and the conviction of truth is urgent. Delay could result in discouragement and loss of interest.

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DTH 11.  Is the rich man and Lazarus story in Luke 16 true?

Luke 16:22, 23 - “And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham’s bosom; the rich man also died, and was buried; And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off and Lazarus in his bosom.”

  Either this story about the rich man and Lazarus is literally true or it is a parable. Here are four reasons why it could not possibly be literal:

1. The beggar died and was taken by the angels to Abraham’s bosom. No one believes that Abraham’s literal bosom is the living place of the righteous dead. It is a figurative or parabolic expression. Note that the angels will gather God’s faithful people (the saints), but according to Matthew 24:30, 31 this will take place at the Second Coming of Jesus, not at a person’s death.

2. Heaven and hell were separated by a gulf, and yet the persons in each could converse with each other. There are probably few individuals in the world who believe that this will be literally true of the saved and the lost (Luke 16:26).

3. The rich man was in hell with a body. He had eyes, a tongue, etc. (Luke 16:24). How did his body get into hellfire instead of into the grave? I know of no one who teaches that the bodies of the wicked go into hell as soon as they die. This story could not be literal.

4. The request for Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and come through the flames to cool the rich man’s tongue is obviously not literal. How much moisture would be left and how much relief would it give? The whole story is unrealistic and is a parable story .

   The rich man undoubtedly represented the Jews in the parable because only a Jew would pray to “father Abraham”. The beggar symbolized the Gentiles, who were counted unworthy to receive the truth. In Matthew 15:27, the Canaanite woman acknowledged that here people were beggars at the table of the Jews.

   Christ probably chose the name of Lazarus to use in the parable because later he would actually raise Lazarus from the dead. And the climactic point of the entire parable is found in verse 31: “If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead”. Sure enough, they didn’t believe even when one named Lazarus was raised before them.

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DTH 12.  Did the thief on the cross go to paradise that day? - Luke 23:43

Luke 23:43 - “And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.”

  Some have assumed from this verse that souls go to their reward immediately after death, a teaching which goes contrary to many other Bible texts. Notice two things wrong with this assumption. First: Even though Jesus told the thief, “Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise”, three days later He told Mary that He had not yet ascended to His Father. (See John 20:17)

  Here is the evidence that His Father was in Paradise: Revelation 2:7 says the tree of life “is in the midst of the paradise of God,” and Revelation 22:1, 2 describes the tree of life by the side of the river of life which flows, in turn, from the throne of God. So there is no question about the Father’s throne being located in Paradise. The question is: How could Jesus have told the thief that He would be with him in Paradise that day when He did not go there until three days later?

  The apparent contradiction is cleared up when we consider that the punctuation of Luke 23:43 was added by uninspired men when our English Bible was translated. They placed a comma before the word “today”, when in reality it should have been placed after the word “To day”. Then the verse would correctly read: “Verily I say unto thee To day, shalt thou be with me in paradise”. In other words, Jesus was saying: “I give you the assurance today, when it seems I can save no man―today, when my disciples have forsaken me and I’m dying as a criminal dies, I assure you of salvation.”

  Please notice that the thief did not ask to be taken to paradise then. He asked, “Lord remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom”. That’s exactly when he will be remembered and taken into that kingdom at the Second Coming of Jesus Christ.

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DTH 13.  What does John 5:24 means when it says, “but is passed from death unto life”?

John 5:24 - “Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation, but is passed from death unto life.” 

  The Christian receives everlasting life as a gift when he accepts Jesus. “And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish” (John 10:28). “He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life” (1 John 5:12).

  Are these verses talking about temporal life or eternal life? Does accepting Christ save us from the first death or the second death? The answer is obvious. Jesus said, “He that … believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and … is passed from death unto life” (John 5:24). Please note that this death had to be the second death. Receiving everlasting life did not take away the first death―only the second. Although the Scriptures tell us that the apostle Paul had eternal life (2 Timothy 4:7, 8), he still suffered the first death. Paul said, “It is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27). This is true of good or bad, saved or lost.

  Please note that the eternal life received when we accept Christ does not save us from the first death, but only from the second. “He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death” (Revelation 2:11). Only the wicked will be cast into the lake of fire, which is the second death (Revelation 21:8). Because the Christian has everlasting life through the Son, he will never die. The second death cannot touch him, and he will live for eternity. Dying the first death will not take away that promise of life without end, which is the gift of God.

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DTH 14.  What does “he shall never see death” mean in John 8:51? 

John 8:51 - “Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.” 

  The Christian receives everlasting life as a gift when he accepts Jesus. “And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish” (John 10:28). “He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life” (1 John 5:12).

   Are these verses talking about life on earth now or eternal life? Does accepting Christ save us from the first death or the second death? The answer is obvious. Jesus said, “He that … believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and … is passed from death unto life” (John 5:24). Please note that this death had to be the second death. Receiving everlasting life did not take away the first death―only the second. Although the Scriptures tell us that the apostle Paul had eternal life (2 Timothy 4:7, 8), he still suffered the first death. Paul said, “It is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27). This is true of good or bad, saved or lost.

  Please note that the eternal life received when we accept Christ does not save us from the first death, but only from the second. “He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death” (Revelation 2:11). Only the wicked will be cast into the lake of fire, which is the second death (Revelation 21:8). Because the Christian has everlasting life through the Son, he will never die. The second death cannot touch him, and he will live for eternity. Dying the first death will not take away that promise of life without end, which is the gift of God.

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DTH 15. What does “and they shall never perish” mean in John 10:28?

John 10:28 - “And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.”

  Two wonderful assurances are given in this text. God’s faithful obedient children have eternal life as a gift in their lives, even while waiting for Jesus to come. Secondly, no man is able to take that “eternal life” gift away from them and separate them from the Father.

  Let’s look at these statements carefully. How can it be said that we have eternal life before Jesus comes to bestow immortality upon us” In John 5:24, Jesus said, “… He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.”

  The born-again Christian immediately begins to partake of the divine nature of Jesus. Peter describes the faith process as claiming the promises of salvation that “… ye might be partakers of the divine nature” (2 Peter 1:4). As long as this faith relationship continues and God’s sheep hear His voice and follow Him, there is a sharing of the very life of Christ. Although no human being can deprive the Christian of that shared eternal life, the Christian can always choose to take himself away from Christ by severing the relationship which provides the divine nature (eternal life). In that case, he removes himself from the Father’s hand and severs himself (cuts himself off) also from the source of everlasting life.

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DTH 16. What does John 11:26 mean where it says, “And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die”?

John 11:26 - “And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this?”

  Jesus introduced this text with these words, “I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die” (verses 25, 26).

  It is quite apparent that Jesus was talking about the second death when he said “shall never die”. This person had already lived the first life, died, and lived again in the resurrection. Revelation 2:11 assures that the overcomer “… shall not be hurt of the second death”. Although “it is appointed unto men once to die …” (Hebrews 9:27), those who are accepted by Christ shall never die that second eternal death.

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DTH 17.  What does “baptized for the dead” mean in 1 Corinthians 15:29?

1 Corinthians 15:29 - “Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?”

  This is perhaps one of the most puzzling things that Paul wrote in his epistles. One explanation that fits in perfectly with Paul’s line of reasoning revolves around the meaning of the word “for”. The Greek word is “huper, and the general translation is “in behalf of”. But there are exceptions to this meaning. Sometimes the word is used in the sense of “considering” or “in view of”.

  For example, 2 Thessalonians 1:4 says: “So that we ourselves glory in you in the churches of God for your patience and faith in all your persecutions …”. Here Paul is saying, “We glory in you considering (or in view of) your patience and faith.” In Romans 15:9―which reads, “And that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy …” ― it can be translated “considering his mercy.”

  Please notice now that this same word “huper”, which is translated “for”, is used both ways in 1 Corinthians 15:29: “Else what shall they do which are baptized for (considering) the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for (in view of) the dead?”

  If we substitute this other meaning of the word “for”, the text makes perfect sense. Paul’s whole theme in the chapter is the resurrection―its importance and necessity. He is saying, “Why even be baptized if there is no resurrection from the dead?” The very meaning baptism would made negated. With no resurrection, the entire symbolism of baptism―death, burial, and resurrection―would be reduced to an empty ritual.

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DTH 18. What does 2 Corinthians 5:6-8 mean when it says, “to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord”?

2 Corinthians 5:6-8 - “Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord: … We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord”.

For getting the right context let's look at the whole passage of Scripture;

  2 Corinthians 5:1-9

"1. For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.

 2. For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven:

 3. If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked.

 4. For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life.

 5. Now he that hath wrought us for the selfsame thing is God, who also hath given unto us the earnest of the Spirit.

 6. Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:

 7. (For we walk by faith, not by sight:)

 8. We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

 9. Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him."

  In verses 1-9 the apostle Paul is contrasting the present mortal state with the future immortal life in heaven. Notice the expressions he uses for the two conditions:

earthly house …….....………………building of God

this tabernacle …..……house not made with hands

mortality ……....….our house which is from heaven

in the body ………….....…….absent from the  body

absent from the Lord …...…...present with the Lord

  Paul speaks of being clothed with “our house which is from heaven” (verse 2). He longs “that mortality might be swallowed up of life.” (verse 4) But the key to the entire discourse lies in the description of a third condition. After desiring to be clothed with immortality, Paul states that “being clothed we shall not be found naked” (verse 3). Putting it yet another way, he said, “… not for that we would be unclothed” (verse 4).

  Clearly the naked or unclothed state was neither mortality nor immortality, but death and the grave. Paul realized that one did not pass instantly from being clothed with this tabernacle into being clothed with our house from heaven. Death and the grave came in between, and he referred to this as being unclothed and naked.

  In Paul’s first letter to the Corinthians, he made it clear exactly when that change from mortality would take place. In 1 Corinthians 15:51-53, he wrote, “Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.”

That will be when Jesus comes.

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DTH 19.  What does Paul mean in 2 Corinthians 12:1-4 where he writes, “whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I                         cannot tell: God knoweth”?

2 Corinthians 12:1-4 - “1. It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord. 2. I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven. 3. And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) 4. How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.”

  Although this text has been used to try and “prove” the doctrine of an immortal soul, it has no such meaning at all. It is conceded by practically all commentators that Paul was describing his own experience, because he spoke in the context of his own revelations. He was concerned that no one think he was glorying or boasting about his visions. For this reason, probably, he ascribed the experience to a man he knew.

  Paul’s soul did not leave his body, in spite of claims to the contrary. If so, he would have been dead, and nowhere does he make any allusion to his death or resurrection.

  Paul is speaking of “visions” and “revelations” in the text. He was not puzzled over whether he had died or not. He was merely uncertain as to how he was able to see paradise (heaven) in that vision. Although it seemed that was bodily taken to heaven, yet he felt it possible that he was taken there only spiritually. He confessed to complete ignorance as to what actually happened. The physical impressions seemed as though he were “out of the body”, in a way of speaking. In the same manner of speech, Paul wrote to the Colossian church, “For though I be absent in the flesh, yet am I with you in the spirit” (Colossians 2:5). No one interprets this to mean that some immortal soul left Paul’s body to be with his friends.

  The fact is, as Paul said, that only God knows the nature of that spiritual visit to paradise. So we would do well not to base any doctrine on a text that is understood by God only.

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HELL

HL 1. Explain Isaiah 66:24 where it says, "for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched."?

Isaiah 66:24 - “And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched; and they shall be an abhorring unto all flesh”

This description of the final destruction of the wicked assures us that they finally are lifeless “carcases” (dead bodies). Their bodies burn in the lake of fire. (See comments on Mark 9:43, 44 for an explanation of the undying worm and unquenchable fire).

The valley of Hinnom located just outside the walls of Jerusalem was where the refuse and bodies of animals were cast into an ever-smoldering fire to be consumed. What might escape the flames was constantly being destroyed by maggots which fed on the dead bodies. This symbolized a place of total destruction’

Jesus taught in Mark 9:43,44 that the fires of hell could not be quenched or put out by anyone. Isaiah said, “They shall not deliver themselves from the power of the flame” (Isaiah 47:14). Yet he hastened to say in the same verse that “there shall not be a coal to warm at, nor fire to sit before it.” So the unquenchable fire will go out after it has consumed the wicked as stubble. Jerusalem burned with unquenchable fire according to Jeremiah 17:27 when it was totally destroyed (2 Chronicles 36:19).

Since the walls of the holy city will be “clear as crystal” (Revelation 21:11, 18), the redeemed might easily go forth from their heavenly homes, look through the crystal-clear walls, and “see the reward of the wicked” (Psalm 91:8). This certainly will not be a very pleasant spectacle. Zechariah 14:12 says: “Their flesh shall consume away …” But the wicked soon are burned up (Malachi 4:1, 3) and shall be as though they had not been (Obadiah 16). Then the earth is recreated as the eternal home of the righteous, all tears are wiped away, and there shall be no more pain (Revelation 21:1, 4).

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SABBATH

SAB 1. Isn’t the Lord’s Day Sunday?

There is only one verse of Scripture which is used to prove this, and it does not provide such proof. Here it is: "I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet."—Revelation 1:10. John was here speaking of a day quite familiar to him, but a day not specifically named in this verse. Nothing is said here about Sunday. What day was John speaking of? As usual, Scripture is the key to the truths of His Word. Only Scripture can properly explain Scripture. On a certain day, John the Revelator was in vision and saw Christ as well as many future events. John said that day was the Lord’s Day (Revelation 1:10). What day was it? It obviously was the day belonging to the Lord. The Bible tells us what day that was.

It is the Day of the LORD. The Bible Sabbath is the day unto the LORD (Exodus 16:23, 25; 31:15; 35:2), the day of the LORD (Exodus 20:10. Leviticus 23:3, Deuteronomy 5:14), and His own day (Isaiah 58:13). Read each of those verses; they clearly name the Bible Sabbath to be the day of the Lord. Jesus is the Creator who gave us the Sabbath (Ephesians 3:9, John 1:3, Colossians 1:16, Hebrews 1:2, Genesis 2:1-3), and John had heard Him call Himself "the Lord of the Sabbath day" (Matthew 12:8, Mark 2:28). John well knew which day was the Lord’s Day. This day is the Memorial Day of the Creator (Genesis 2:1-3, Exodus 31:17) and the Memorial Day of the Redeemer (Ezekiel 20:12, 20). It is the Lord’s Day—a day that God wants to share with you. The best day of them all—the Bible Sabbath day—the seventh day. The time in which John lived helps explain why he used "the Lord’s day" as a synonym for the Sabbath as he wrote the book of Revelation. Christianity was coming into ever greater conflict with pagan Rome. The Roman emperors were often deified—called "Lord" and "God"— and worship to them was being required on pain of death. At that time, there were "emperor days "(such as his birthday), at which time religious celebrations were held. The day on which a Caesar visited a certain city was ever afterward considered a holiday there and a day on which he was worshiped. The emperor Domitian was "accustomed to call himself, and to be called, ‘Lord and God.’ "—Phillip Schaff, History of the Christian Church, 8th edition, Vol. 2, p. 44. John was banished to the Island of Patmos during Domitian’s reign; and, while there, he was given special visions which he wrote down in the Revelation. He saw the glory of his Lord, and he called Him "King of kings and Lord of lords." How meaningful this was to the Christians who would read in the Revelation of the history of pagan and papal Rome and their efforts to make themselves "Lord and God." For untold centuries, faithful followers of Christ died rather than call caesars and popes "Lord and God." John was already being introduced to the persecuting power of Rome; and, as he prepared in chapter one to speak of the glory of Christ, he declared HIM to be the Lord—Lord of His Day, and Lord of those who accepted him and His Day. We live at the end of time. Let us today come and worship Him on His Day—the day of the true Lord, the Lord of heaven and earth. The proof of His Lordship is His Creatorship (Revelation 4:11)—which the Bible Sabbath shall memorialize through all eternity. Come, let us worship our Maker and prepare for the magnificent worship services of the future: "For as the new heavens and the new earth which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the LORD, so shall your seed and your name remain. And it shall come to pass that from one new moon to another, and from one sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the LORD."—Isaiah 66:22-23.

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SECOND COMING

SC 1. What does Luke 17:34-36 mean where it says, "one shall be taken, and the other left."?

Luke 17:34-36 - “I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left. Two women shall be grinding together; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left.” Secret rapture advocates take this text as evidence of a secret coming of Christ to snatch away His saints. But to get the whole picture, begin reading in verse 26. Jesus described Noah’s day and Lot’s day and said: “Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed” (verse 30). Then He added, “I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left, …”

How was it in the days of Noah and Lot? Some were taken and some were left. Those taken were taken to safety, and those left were left dead. Jesus said, “This is the way it will be when I come. Some will be taken and some will be left.” In fact, verses 36 and 37 make it very plain what Jesus meant: “Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. And they answered and said unto him, Where, Lord? And he said unto them, Wheresoever the body is, thither will the eagles be gathered together”. The disciples wanted to know where the others would be left, and Christ asserted they would be left dead. In one other text Jesus used similar language: “For wheresoever the carcass (dead body) is, there will the eagles be gathered together” (Matthew 24:28). Some may object and say that eagles are not known to gather in flocks and feed on dead bodies, but here’s what the Bible says concerning them: “Doth the eagle mount up at thy command, and make her nest on hight? … Her young ones also suck up blood: and where the slain are, there is she” (Job 39:27, 30). The obvious meaning of Christ’s words is that, just as in Noah’s day and Lot’s day, the righteous will be taken to safety and the wicked slain (by the brightness of His coming), the bodies of the wicked will be scattered over the earth for the birds of prey. There is no secret rapture here. The term is unknown in the Bible, and so is the doctrine.

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HEAVEN

HVN 1.  In 2 Corinthians 12:2-4 what does the apostle Paul mean by 'the third heaven'?

2 Corinthians 12:2, 3 “I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth:) such an one caught up to the third heaven. And I knew such a man (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)”

Although this text has been used to “prove” the doctrine of an immortal soul, it has no such connotation at all. It is conceded by practically all commentators that Paul was describing his own experience, because he spoke in the context of his own revelations. He was concerned that no one think he was glorying or boasting about his visions. For this reason, probably, he ascribed the experience to a man he knew.

Paul’s soul did not leave his body, in spite of claims to the contrary. If so, he would have been dead, and nowhere does he make any allusion to his death or resurrection.

Paul is speaking of “visions” and “revelations” in the text. He was not puzzled over whether he had died or not. He was merely uncertain as to how he was able to see paradise in that vision. Although it seemed that was bodily taken to heaven, yet he felt it possible that he was taken there only spiritually. He confessed to complete ignorance as to what actually happened. The physical impressions seemed as though he were “out of the body”, in a way of speaking. In the same manner of speech, Paul wrote to the Colossian church, “For though I be absent in the flesh, yet am I with you in the spirit” (Colossians 2:5). No one interprets this to mean that some immortal soul left Paul’s body to be with his friends.

The fact is, as Paul said, that only God knows the nature of that spiritual visit to paradise. So we would do well not to base any doctrine on a text that is understood by God only.

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SALVATION

SAL 1. What does "born of water and of the Spirit" mean in John 3:5?

Born of water is referring to baptism in water by immersion (complete submersion of the person in water) and born of the Spirit means spiritual rebirth; – being ‘born again’ (John 3:3).

Nicodemus knew that Christ here referred to water baptism and the renewing of the heart by the Spirit of God. Jesus continued: "That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit." By nature the heart is evil, and "who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one." Job 14:4. No human invention can find a remedy for the sinning soul. "The carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be." "Out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies." Romans 8:7; Matthew 15:19. The fountain of the heart must be purified before the streams can become pure. He who is trying to reach heaven by his own works in keeping the law is attempting an impossibility. There is no safety for one who has merely a legal religion, a form of godliness. The Christian's life is not a modification or improvement of the old, but a transformation of nature. There is a death to self and sin, and a new life altogether. This change can be brought about only by the effectual working of the Holy Spirit.

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LAW, TEN COMMANDMENTS

LTC 1.

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COVENANTS

COV 1.

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GODHEAD

GOD 1.

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BIBLE

BLE 1.

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CREATION

CN 1.

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DIET AND FOOD

D&F 1.

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ALCOHOL

ALC 1.

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SATAN - THE DEVIL

STN 1.

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PROPHECY

PCY 1.

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MARRIAGE; RELATIONSHIPS

M&R 1.

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SPIRITUAL GIFTS; TONGUES

SGT 1.

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GENERAL QUESTIONS

GENQST 1.

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